Examples for Equivalance Partitionaing and BVA

Examples with detailed explanation :

Question 1One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalence class.
a)    17
b)    19
c)    24
d)    21
Solution
The text box accepts numeric values in the range 18 to 25 (18 and 25 are also part of the class). So this class becomes our valid class. But the question is to identify invalid equivalence class. The classes will be as follows:
Class I: values < 18   => invalid class
Class II: 18 to 25       => valid class
Class III: values > 25 => invalid class
17 fall under invalid class. 19, 24 and 21 fall under valid class. So answer is ‘A’
Question 2
In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks.  Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.
a)    22,23,26
b)    21,39,40
c)    29,30,31
d)    0,15,22
Solution
The classes will be as follows:
Class I: values < 24   => invalid class
Class II: 24 to 40       => valid class
Class III: values > 40 => invalid class
We have to indentify Valid Equivalence values. Valid Equivalence values will be there in Valid Equivalence class. All the values should be in Class II. So answer is ‘C’
Question 3
One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify the Valid Equivalence class
a)    BOOK
b)    Book
c)    Boo01k
d)    Book
Solution
Alpha numeric is combination of alphabets and numbers. Hence we have to choose an option which has both of these. A valid equivalence class will consist of both alphabets and numbers. Option ‘c’ contains both alphabets and numbers. So answer is ‘C’
Question 4
The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the temperature is more than 21. When the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalence values which belong to the same class.
a)    12,16,22
b)    24,27,17
c)    22,23,24
d)    14,15,19
Solution
We have to choose values from same class (it can be valid or invalid class). The classes will be as follows:
Class I: less than 18 (switch turned off)
Class II: 18 to 21
Class III: above 21 (switch turned on)
Only in Option ‘c’ all values are from one class. Hence the answer is ‘C’. (Please note that the question does not talk about valid or invalid classes. It is only about values in same class)
Question 5
A program validates a numeric field as follows: values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected. Which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22
Solution
We have to select values which fall in all the equivalence class (valid and invalid both). The classes will be as follows:
Class I: values <= 9   => invalid class
Class II: 10 to 21       => valid class
Class III: values >= 22 => invalid class
All the values from option ‘c’ fall under all different equivalence class. So answer is ‘C’.
Question 6
A program validates a numeric field as follows: values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected. Which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21
Solution
We have already come up with the classes as shown in question 5. The boundaries can be identified as 9, 10, 21, and 22. These four values are in option ‘b’. So answer is ‘B’
Question 7
In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?
a)    £4000; £5000; £5500
b)    £32001; £34000; £36500
c)    £28000; £28001; £32001
d)    £4000; £4200; £5600
Solution
The classes will be as follows:
Class I   : 0 to £4000          => no tax
Class II  : £4001 to £5500   => 10 % tax
Class III : £5501 to £33500 => 22 % tax
Class IV : £33501 and above => 40 % tax
Select the values which fall in three different equivalence classes. Option ‘d’ has values from three different equivalence classes. So answer is ‘D’.
Question 8
In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a)    £28000
b)    £33501
c)    £32001
d)    £1500
Solution
The classes are already divided in question # 7. We have to select a value which is a boundary value (start/end value). 33501 is a boundary value. So answer is ‘B’.
Question 9
Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence partition?
If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured.
Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount.
Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.
a)    17, 18, 19
b)    29, 30, 31
c)    18, 29, 30
d)    17, 29, 31
Solution
The classes will be as follows:
Class I: age < 18       => not insured
Class II: age 18 to 30 => 20 % discount
Class III: age > 30     => no discount
Here we cannot determine if the above classes are valid or invalid, as nothing is mentioned in the question. (But according to our guess we can say I and II are valid and III is invalid. But this is not required here.) We have to select values which are in SAME equivalence partition. Values from option ‘c’ fall in same partition. So answer is ‘C’.

General Guidelines for Preparing ISTQB Exam

Hi Friends,
Below are the general guidelines and syllabus breakup please prepare accordingly.

Guidelines:

• 40 Questions
• 65% pass mark
• 75 minutes
• Multiple choice questions
• Only one correct answer
• No negative marking
• All questions from syllabus
• Read the syllabus very carefully

Question breakup:

• 50% K1 (remember, recall type)
• 30% K2 (Compare, contrast type)
• 20% K3 (Analyze, apply type. Numerical type as well)
• See syllabus for details on K levels

 Tips and Tricks :
 
- ISTQB Questions are simple but answers are confusing at times. More than one correct    answers possible. Choose the one which is more correct or correct in more scenarios.

- Read the questions very carefully. Sometimes you might miss important words. Solve ISTQB Sample Papers frequently. 

- Do not jump to answer quickly. Go through all options before selecting one.

- Look out for words like ALL, EVERY, NEVER etc. These might help you choose correct answer. For example, ALL bugs should be fixed is incorrect statement but bugs should be fixed is more correct and might indicate right choice.

- Read the complete ISTQB syllabus.

Number of Questions Expected from each chapter:

 
- The principles of testing = 7
- Testing throughout the life-cycle = 6
- Static testing = 3
- Test design techniques = 12
- Test management = 8
- Tool support for testing = 4

Loop Testing

Loops are the basis of most algorithms implemented using software.Loop testing is a white box testing approach that concentrates on the validity of loop constructs.Four loops 
can be defined: simple loops, concatenate loops, nested loops, and unstructured loops.

1.Simple loops: The follow group of tests should be used on simple loops, where n is the maximum number of allowable passes through the loop: 

� Skip the loop entirely.

� Only one pass through the loop.

� Two passes through the loop.
� M passes through the loop where m<n.
� n-1, n, n+1 passes through the loop.


2.Nested loop: For the nested loop the number of possible tests increases as the level of nesting grows. This would result in an impractical number of tests. An approach that 
will help to limit the number of tests:

� Start at the innermost loop. Set all other loops 
to minimum values.
� Conduct simple loop tests for the innermost loop 
while holding the outer loop at their minimum iteration 
parameter value. 
� Work outward, performing tests for the next loop, 
but keeping all other outer loops at minimum values and 
other nested loops to typical values.
� Continue until all loops have been tested.


3.Concatenated loops: Concatenated loops can be tested using the techniques outlined for simple loops, if each of the loops is independent of the other. When the loops are not independent the approach applied to nested loops is recommended.

4.Unstructured loops: This class of loop should be 
redesigned to reflect the use of the structured programming 
constructs.

Definitions

Some of the following definitions can be direct questions in the ISTQB exams.

1. Error / Mistake :  

A human action that produces an incorrect result.

2.Defect / Bug / Fault: 

A flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform its required function, e.g. an incorrect statement or data definition. A defect, if
encountered during execution, may cause a failure of the component or system.

 3.Failure : 

Any deviation of the component or system from its expected delivery, service or result. 

4.Black box test design technique: 
Procedure to derive and/or select test cases based on an analysis of the specification, either functional or non-functional, of a component or system without reference to its internal structure. 

5.Black box testing: 

Testing, either functional or non-functional, without reference to the internal structure of the component or system. 

6.White-box test design technique: 

Procedure to derive and/or select test cases based on an analysis of the internal structure of a component or system. 

7.White-box testing: 

Testing based on an analysis of the internal structure of the component or
system. 





8.Alpha Testing :
 
9.Beta Testing :


 

Boundary Value Analysis with Examples:

Boundary Value Analysis:

Boundary value analysis is a black box test design technique and it is used to find the errors at boundaries of input domain rather than finding those errors in the center of input.
 Each boundary has a valid boundary value and an invalid boundary value. Test cases are designed based on the both valid and invalid boundary values. Usually is chosen one test case from each boundary.

Boundary value analysis is a next part of Equivalence partitioning for designing test cases where test cases are selected at the edges of the equivalence classes.Boundary value analysis is often called as a part of stress and negative testing. 
 
Lets understand this better now by taking below example:
Test cases for input box accepting numbers between 1 and 1000 using Boundary value analysis:

1) Test cases with test data exactly as the input boundaries of input domain i.e. values 1 and 1000 in our case.

2) Test data with values just below the extreme edges of input domains i.e. values 0 and 999.

3) Test data with values just above the extreme edges of input domain i.e. values 2 and 1001.
Now lets understand it even more simple with the below example:


Question
A program validates a numeric field as follows: values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22 are rejected. Which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21
Solution
We have already come up with the classes as shown in question 5. The boundaries can be identified as 9, 10, 21, and 22. These four values are in option ‘b’. So answer is ‘B’

Equivalence partitioning with Examples:

Equivalence partitioning:

 Equivalence partitioning (also called Equivalence Class Partitioning) is a software testing
technique that divides the input data of a software unit into partitions of equivalent data from which test cases can be derived.

A shorter definition is that in this method the input domain data is divided into different equivalence data classes. This method is typically used to reduce the total number of test cases to a finite set of testable test cases, still covering maximum requirements.
Another much concrete definition is that equivalence partitioning is the process of taking all possible test cases and placing them into classes and, while testing, one test value is picked from each class.

Lets take the below question as example and try to understand how to analyse the questions related to  Equivalence partitioning:

Question:

If you are testing for an input box accepting numbers from 1 to 1000 then there is no use in writing thousand test cases for all 1000 valid input numbers plus other test cases for invalid data.

Analysis:

Using equivalence partitioning method above test cases can be divided into three sets of input data called as classes. Each test case is a representative of respective class.
So in above example we can divide our test cases into three equivalence classes of some valid and invalid inputs.
Test cases for input box accepting numbers between 1 and 1000 using Equivalence Partitioning:
1) One input data class with all valid inputs. Pick a single value from range 1 to 1000 as a valid test case. If you select other values between 1 and 1000 then result is going to be same. So one test case for valid input data should be sufficient.
2) Input data class with all values below lower limit. I.e. any value below 1, as a invalid input data test case.
3) Input data with any value greater than 1000 to represent third invalid input class.
So using equivalence partitioning you have categorized all possible test cases into three classes. Test cases with other values from any class should give you the same result.
We have selected one representative from every input class to design our test cases. Test case values are selected in such a way that largest number of attributes of equivalence class can be exercised.
Equivalence partitioning uses fewest test cases to cover maximum requirements.
I hope you understood how to analyse  Equivalence partitioning

Now lets solve the below simple example:

Question
In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks.  Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.
a)    22,23,26
b)    21,39,40
c)    29,30,31
d)    0,15,22
Solution
The classes will be as follows:
Class I: values < 24   => invalid class
Class II: 24 to 40       => valid class
Class III: values > 40 => invalid class
We have to indentify Valid Equivalence values. Valid Equivalence values will be there in Valid Equivalence class. All the values should be in Class II. So answer is ‘C’

Answer below questions for your better understanding:
Question 1: 

One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalence class.

a)    17
b)    19
c)    24
d)    21

Question 2:

In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks.  Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.

a)    22,23,26
b)    21,39,40
c)    29,30,31
d)    0,15,22

Statement Coverage, Branch Coverage and Path Coverage

Simple Explanation for Statement , Branch and Path Coverage :

Statement Coverage:

In this the test case is executed in such a way that every statement of the code is executed at least once

Branch/Decision Coverage:

Test coverage criteria requires enough test cases such that each condition in a decision takes on all possible outcomes at least once, and each point of entry to a program or subroutine is invoked at least once. That is,every branch (decision) taken each way, true and false. It helps in validating all the branches in the code making sure that no branch leads to abnormal behavior of the application.

Path Coverage:

In this the test case is executed in such a way that every path is executed at least once. All possible control paths taken, including all loop paths taken zero, once, and multiple (ideally, maximum) items in path coverage technique, the test cases are prepared based on the logical complexity measure of a procedural design. In this type of testing every statement in the program is guaranteed to be executed

at least one time. Flow Graph, Cyclomatic Complexity and Graph Metrics are used to arrive at basis path

How to calculate Statement Coverage, Branch Coverage and Path Coverage?

Draw the flow in the following way

- Nodes represent entries, exits, decisions andeach statement of code.

- Edges represent non branching and branching links between nodes.

Example:

Read P

Read Q

IF P+Q > 100 THEN

Print “Large”

ENDIF

If P > 50 THEN

Print “P Large”

ENDIF

Calculate statement coverage, branch coverage and path coverage.

Solution:

The flow chart for the above example will be as below

 

Statement Coverage (SC) :

To calculate Statement Coverage, find out the shortest number of paths following which all the nodes will be covered. Here by traversing through path 1A-2C-3D-E-4G-5H all the nodes are covered. So by traveling through only one path all the nodes 12345 are covered, so the Statement coverage in this case is 1.

Branch Coverage(BC)/Decision Coverage (DC):

To calculate Branch Coverage, find out the minimum number of paths which will ensure covering of all the edges. In this case there is no single path which will ensure coverage of allthe edges atone go. By following paths 1A-2C-3D-E-4G-5H, maximum numbers of edges (A, C, D, E, G and H) are covered but edges B and F are left.To cover these edges we can follow 1A-2B-E-4F. By the combining the above two paths we can ensure of traveling through all the paths. Hence Branch Coverage is 2. The aim is to cover all possible true/false decisions.

Path Coverage (PC) :

Path Coverage ensures covering of all the paths from start to end.All possible paths are

1A-2B-E-4F 

1A-2B-E-4G-5H

1A-2C-3D-E-4G-5H

1A-2C-3D-E-4F

So path coverage is 4.

Thus for the above example SC=1, BC=2 and PC=4

Defect Life Cycle

What is a Defect Life Cycle or a Bug life cycle in software testing?

Defect life cycle is a cycle which a defect goes through during its lifetime. It starts when defect is found and ends when a defect is closed, after ensuring it’s not reproduced. Defect life cycle is related to the bug found during testing.
The bug has different states in the Life Cycle. The Life cycle of the bug can be shown diagrammatically as follows:


Bug or defect life cycle includes following steps or status:

New:  When a defect is logged and posted for the first time. It’s state is given as new. 

Assigned:  After the tester has posted the bug, the lead of the tester approves that the bug is genuine and he assigns the bug to corresponding developer and the developer team. It’s state given as assigned.

Open:  At  this state the developer has started analyzing and working on the defect fix.

Fixed:  When developer makes necessary code changes and verifies the changes then he/she can make bug status as ‘Fixed’ and the bug is passed to testing team.

Pending retest:  After fixing the defect the developer has given that particular code for retesting to the tester. Here the testing is pending on the testers end. Hence its status is pending retest.

Retest:  At this stage the tester do the retesting of the changed code which developer has given to him to check whether the defect got fixed or not.

Verified:  The tester tests the bug again after it got fixed by the developer. If thebug is not present in the software, he approves that the bug is fixed and changes the status to “verified”.

Reopen:  If the bug still exists even after the bug is fixed by the developer, the tester changes the status to “reopened”. The bug goes through the life cycle once again.

Closed:  Once the bug is fixed, it is tested by the tester. If the tester feels that the bug no longer exists in the software, he changes the status of the bug to “closed”. This state means that the bug is fixed, tested and approved.

Duplicate: If the bug is repeated twice or the two bugs mention the same concept of the bug, then one bug status is changed to “duplicate“.

Rejected: If the developer feels that the bug is not genuine, he rejects the bug. Then the state of the bug is changed to “rejected”.

Deferred: The bug, changed to deferred state means the bug is expected to be fixed in next releases. The reasons for changing the bug to this state have many factors. Some of them are priority of the bug may be low, lack of time for the release or the bug may not have major effect on the software. 

Not a bug:  The state given as “Not a bug” if there is no change in the functionality of the application. For an example: If customer asks for some change in the look and field of the application like change of colour of some text then it is not a bug but just some change in the looks of the  application.

Testing Techniques

The Testing is mainly classified into two types - Static testing and Dynamic testing.

Among them there are different testing techniques. Below diagram is the pictorial representation of Testing techniques.

Differences between Static and Dynamic Testing

Differences between Static Testing and Dynamic Testing :

Online Practice exams Sites

Please find the below sites which has practice online exams  :

http://www.testingexcellence.com/istqb-quiz/istqb-foundation-practice-exam-1/

http://www.proprofs.com/quiz-school/story.php?title=istqb-foundation-level-practice-test-1_1

http://www.patshala.com/istqbtest/istqb_test1.html

Sample Question Paper 1

1. Which of the following is true

a. Testing is the same as quality assurance

b. Testing is a part of quality assurance

c. Testing is not a part of quality assurance

d. Testing is same as debugging

2. Why is testing necessary?

a. Because testing is good method to make there are not defects in the software

b. Because verification and validation are nto enough to get to know the quality of the

software

c. Because testing measures the quality of the software system and helps to increase the

quality

d. Because testing finds more defects than reviews and inspections.

3. Integration testing has following characteristics

I. It can be done in incremental manner

II. It is always done after system testing

III. It includes functional tests

IV. It includes non-functional tests

a. I, II and III are correct

b. I is correct

c. I, III and IV are correct

d. I, II and IV are correct

4. A number of critical bugs are fixed in a software. All the bugs are in one module, related to

reports. The test manager decides to do regression testing only on the reports module.

a. The test manager should do only automated regression testing.

b. The test manager is justified in her decision because no bug has been fixed in other

modules

c. The test manager should only do confirmation testing. There is no need to do regression

testing

d. Regression testing should be done on other modules as well because fixing one module

may affect other modules

5. Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools?

a. Static analysis tools are used only by developers

b. Compilers may offer some support for static analysis

c. Static analysis tools help find failures rather than defects

d. Static analysis tools require execution of the code to analyze the coverage

6. In a flight reservation system, the number of available seats in each plane model is an input. A plane may have any positive number of available seats, up to the given capacity of the plane.

Using Boundary Value analysis, a list of available – seat values were generated. Which of the

following lists is correct?

a. 1, 2, capacity -1, capacity, capacity plus 1

b. 0, 1, capacity, capacity plus 1

c. 0, 1, 2, capacity plus 1, a very large number

d. 0, 1, 10, 100, capacity, capacity plus one

7. For the code fragment given below, which answer correctly represents minimum tests required

for statement and branch coverage respectively?

Discount rate=1;

Fare = 1000;

If ((person == “senior citizen”) and (“travel month = January”))

Bonuspoints = 100+Bonuspoints

If (class==”first”)

discountRate = .5;

Fare = fare * discountRate;

a. Statement Coverage = 1

Branch Coverage = 2

b. Statement Coverage = 2

Branch Coverage = 2

c. Statement Coverage = 1

Branch Coverage = 3

d. Statement Coverage = 2

Branch Coverage = 4

8. Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools

a. They help you find defects rather than failures

b. They are used by developers only

c. They require compilation of code

d. They are useful only for regulated industries

9. Acme Inc. decides to use functional test execution automation tool for testing GUI of their

product. The GUI is expected to change frequently. Acme Inc. has put some of the manual testers through a 3 day training program on how to use the tool. Which of the following is likely to be true?

a. Automation is likely to fail because of frequent changes and lack of experience

b. Automation is likely to fail because of GUI automation is not the right way to automate

c. Automation is likely to succeed because automation is very useful for frequent changes

d. Automation is likely to succeed because the team has been trained on tool.

10. In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing. Which of the

following sentences describes one of these basic principles?

a. Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools

b. With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the

quality of a product than with manual testing

c. For a software system, it is not possible, under normal conditions, to test all input and

output combinations.

d. A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free.

11. Which of the following statements contains a valid goal for a functional test set?

a. A goal is that no more failures will result from the remaining defects

b. A goal is to find as many failures as possible so that the cause of the failures can be

identified and fixed

c. A goal is to eliminate as much as possible the causes of defects

d. A goal is to fulfil all requirements for testing that are defined in the project plan.

12. In system testing...

a. .. Both functional and non-functional requirements are to be tested

b. ... Only functional requirements are tested; non-functional requirements are validated in

a review

c. ... Only non-functional requirements are tested; functional requirements are validated in

a review

d. ... Only requirements which are listed in the specification document are to be tested

13. Which of the following activities differentiate a walkthrough from a formal review?

a. A walkthrough does not follow a defined process

b. For a walkthrough individual preparation by the reviewers is optional

c. A walkthrough requires meeting

d. A walkthrough finds the causes of failures, while formal review finds the failures

14. Why does the boundary value analysis provide good test cases?

a. Because it is an industry standard

b. Because errors are frequently made during programming of the different cases near the

‘edges’ of the range of values

c. Because only equivalence classes that are equal from a functional point of view are

considered in the test cases

d. Because the test object is tested under maximal load up to its performance limits

15. Which of the following list contains only non-functional tests?

a. Interoperability (compatibility) testing, reliability testing, performance testing

b. System testing, performance testing

c. Load testing, stress testing, component testing, portability testing

d. Testing various configurations, beta testing, load testing

16. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a software product to be developed.

Which of these risks is an example of a product risk?

a. Not enough qualified testers to complete the planned tests

b. Software delivery is behind schedule

c. Threat to a patient’s life

d. 3rd party supplier does not supply as stipulated

17. Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution?

a. Number of detected defects, testing cost;

b. Number of residual defects in the test object.

c. Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases

prepared

d. Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed

18. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Static analysis tools produce statistics during program execution

b. Configuration management systems allow us to provide accurate defect statistics of

different configurations

c. Stress testing tools examine the behaviour of the test object at or beyond full load

d. Performance measurement tools can be used in all phases of software life-cycle

19. What makes an inspection different from other review types?

a. It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit criteria and checklists

b. It is led by the author of the document to be inspected

c. It can only be used for reviewing design and code

d. It is led by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement

20. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: An

integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15

a. Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15

b. Negative numbers, 1 through 15, above 15

c. Less than 1, 1 through 14, more than 15

d. Less than 0, 1 through 14, 15 and more

21. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem:

Paying with credit cards shall be possible with Visa, Master and Amex cards only.

a. Visa, Master, Amex;

b. Visa, Master, Amex, Diners, Keycards, and other option

c. Visa, Master, Amex, any other card, no card

d. No card, other cards, any of Visa – Master – Amex

22. Which of the following techniques are black box techniques?

a. State transition testing, code testing, agile testing

b. Equivalence partitioning, state transition testing, decision table testing

c. System testing, acceptance testing, equivalence partitioning

d. System integration testing, system testing, decision table testing

23. A defect management system shall keep track of the status of every defect registered and enforce

the rules about changing these states. If your task is to test the status tracking, which method

would be best?

a. Logic-based testing

b. Use-case-based testing

c. State transition testing

d. Systematic testing according to the V-model

24. If a program is tested and 100% condition coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage

criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?

a. 100% branch coverage

b. 100% condition coverage and 100% statement coverage

c. Equivalence class and boundary value coverage

d. No other white box coverage criterion is guaranteed to be fulfilled 100%

25. This part of a program is given:-

WHILE (condition A) Do B

END WHILE

How many decisions should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% decision coverage?

a. 2

b. Indefinite

c. 1

d. 4

26. Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?

a. Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the

testware and the test object

b. Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change

control board

c. Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration management

d. Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools

27. What test items should be put under configuration management?

a. The test object, the test material and the test environment

b. The problem reports and the test material

c. Only the test object. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing

d. The test object and the test material

28. Why is successful test execution automation difficult?

a. Because the tools for automated testing require too much effort for learning

b. Because the maintenance of the test system is difficult

c. Because the test robot tools are restricted in their ability to recognize outputs

d. Because the test robot needs to be supported by a test management.

29. Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a software product? (I) The project had

incomplete procedures for configuration management. (II) The time schedule to develop a certain

component was cut. (III) the specification was unclear (IV) Use of the code standard was not

followed up (V) The testers were not certified

a. (I) and (II) are correct

b. (I) through (IV) are correct

c. (III) through (V) are correct

d. (I), (II) and (IV) are correct

30. Which of the following is most often considered as components interface bug?

a. For two components exchanging data, one component used metric units, the other one

used British units

b. The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structure

c. The messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding the

input error cause

d. Under high load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to

31. Which of the following project inputs influence testing? (I) contractual requirements (II) legal

requirements (III) Industry standards (IV) application risk (V) project size

a. (I) through (III) are correct

b. All alternatives are correct

c. (II) and (V) are correct

d. (I), (III) and (V) are correct

32. If a program is tested and 100% branch coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage

criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?

a. 100% Equivalence class coverage

b. 100% Condition coverage and 100% Statement coverage

c. 100% Statement coverage

d. 100% Multiple condition coverage

33. This part of a program is given:-

WHILE (condition A) Do B

END WHILE

How many paths should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% path coverage?

a. One

b. Indefinite

c. Two

d. Four

34. What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?

a. To specify when to stop the testing activity

b. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs

c. To ensure that the test case specification is complete

d. To know when a specific test has finished its execution

35. Which of the following items need not to be given in an incident report?

a. The version number of the test object

b. Test data and used environment

c. Identification of the test case that failed

d. The location and instructions on how to correct the fault

36. V-Model is:

a. A software development model that illustrates how testing activities integrate with

software development phases

b. A software life-cycle model that is not relevant for testing

c. The official software development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQB

d. A testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system and acceptance phases

37. Why is incremental integration preferred over “big bang” integration?

a. Because incremental integration has better early defects screening and isolation ability

b. Because “big bang” integration is suitable only for real time applications

c. Incremental integration is preferred over “Big Bang Integration” only for “bottom up”

development model

d. Because incremental integration can compensate for weak and inadequate component

testing

38. Maintenance testing is:

a. Testing management

b. Synonym of testing the quality of service

c. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software

d. Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor

39. A test engineer is testing a Video Player (VCR), and logs the following report:

Title: Fast Forward stops after 2 minutes. It happens every time

Expected result: Fast forward continues till the end of the tape

Severity: High

Priority: Urgent

What important information did the engineer leave out?

a. Identification (Software and hardware) of the VCR

b. Actual result

c. History of the report

d. Ideas for the test case improvement

40. Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?

a. As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide what

will be the most effective way to test the project on hand.

b. Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project

c. A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule

the test-cycles

d. Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme

cases injury and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place.

KEY: 1 - B2 - C3 - C4 - D5 - B6 - B7 - A (Not sure abt the answer)8 - A9 - A (Not sure)10 - C11 - B12 - A13 - B14 - B15 - C16 - C17 - D18 - C19 - A20 - A21 - D (Not sure)22 - B23 - C24 - B25 - A26 - A (Not sure)27 - A28 - B (Not sure)29 - B30 - A31 - B32 - B33 - C34 - A35 - D36 - A37 - A38 - C39 - B40 - D (Not Sure)